Discussion about this post

User's avatar
Michael D. Purzycki's avatar

Well said, Damir. I see international law as a tool: one option among many, that states big and small can point to when it suits their interests.

So much of what we in the West think of as universal values or obligations only appear that way because the country that came out on top in 1945 said they were universal. And it's not like immediate-post-World War II Westerners really, truly, thoroughly believed in universal human rights. The US was still rife with segregation, Europeans still subjugated Africans, etc.

There's nothing inherently wrong with prioritizing some human lives over other human lives. That's what humans do. Humanity sucks that way. The sooner liberals realize that, the better.

Expand full comment
(anti)Social Engineer's avatar

I think this question doubly doesn't matter because it's not actually a question of international law as such but rather a pseudo-legalistic framing on what is actually a moral and prudential question: should Israel have attacked Iran's nuclear sites, rather than can Israel do so under international law. Preemption and prevention are questions of jus ad bellum or "right to war." Iran and Israel were already at war on June 12/13. That threshold had already been crossed.

The war between Israel and Iran began, arguably, On October 8, 2023 when Hezbollah joined in the attacks in Israel. There is, as yet, no hard evidence Iran knew what Hamas was planning on October 7th but they certainly had a hand in Hezbollah's subsequent involvement, an act of war to which Israel, at least arguably, had a right to respond. One can debate the prudence of escalation by directly striking Iran when it is acting through proxies but even that argument fell by the wayside after Iran attacked Israel from its own soil on October 1 of last year. The two states have very clearly been in a state of war since then, at least. Thus, the question of preemption vs prevention, which is fundamentally a jus ad bellum question, does not come into play here. It is merely an attempt to lend a veneer of legalistic credibility to an argument over whether Israel should have taken this particular action in a war it was already engaged in.

If we take international law seriously at all then we are in the realm of jus in bello, or the 'law of war' where the proper questions to ask are about military necessity, distinction, proportionality etc. These too are terms of art that often get abused in public discourse to lend a false sense of legal credibility to what are really moral and prudential arguments, but I digress.... I think we need to acknowledge that the answers to questions like this can't always turn on the minutiae of some minor point of law like the distinction between prevention and preemption. In the Wisdom of Crowds tradition, we need to dig deeper and interrogate first principles rather than appealing to misapplied legal frameworks that (at least) a significant portion of WoC doesn't believe in anyway.

Expand full comment
36 more comments...

No posts